I did wonder with this response whether they were relying on the defence (within The Equalities Act 2010) that discriminating against people in order to solve a genuine problem (abuse of the disabled spaces) is therefore not discrimination? I am curious as to what it means in the Act - is that what it means? So if a company claims it was done to get rid of one problem and therefore discrimination is collateral damage, can people defend themselves with that argument? Because they have a case study (Parkingeye at 3-1-5) online which clearly explains why they have done it. NB - I am just checking because I am curious about the mechanisms, and how they go about all of this, what makes them so confident?
I don't think that they are confident at all. I don't know what you makes you think that they are.
Your question is insightful—and yes, it sounds like they may be trying (consciously or not) to rely on what’s known as a justification defence under the Equality Act 2010, which applies only to indirect discrimination, not direct discrimination.
Direct discrimination is where a person is treated less favourably because of a protected characteristic, like disability. There is no legal defence to direct discrimination, except in very limited cases involving age.
Indirect discrimination is where a policy or rule applies to everyone, but disproportionately disadvantages people with a protected characteristic. This can be defended if the policy is a “proportionate means of achieving a legitimate aim.”
Is that what you’re referring to—the so-called “greater good” or collateral damage justification?
Their explanation—that disabled visitors must register because others were abusing the disabled bays—suggests they are attempting to justify indirect discrimination, not realising that their policy might also be direct discrimination (which has no such defence).
So, they might argue: “We require Blue Badge holders to register because of previous misuse. That’s our legitimate aim—to ensure those bays are kept for genuine users.” But here’s the problem: The policy only applies to disabled people—not everyone. That strongly suggests it’s direct discrimination, since you’re being treated worse because you are disabled. They can’t justify that.
Even if it’s treated as indirect discrimination, they still have to show that the measure is proportionate. That means the problem was real and evidenced; The measure was likely to solve it; There was no less discriminatory way to solve it and the impact on disabled visitors was minimal.
Their system clearly fails this test because it requires extra steps from disabled people that aren’t required of anyone else. It relies on inaccessible terminals and unclear signage. It offers no safeguard for those with non-visible disabilities. They refuse to cancel PCNs, even when a person can prove eligibility to use the space.
That’s unlikely to be considered proportionate by any court.
They may be over-relying on advice from ParkingEye, whose commercial interest is to maximise enforceable PCNs, not to protect 3-1-5 from discrimination claims. They may believe the “abuse of disabled bays” story sounds reasonable to the average person and might bluff through it if unchallenged. They may believe that most people won’t sue or know the law well enough to challenge them.
I have no idea what this "case study with ParkingEye" you refer to is. Could this possible be a story made up by ParkingEye and is likely framed as a success story, focusing on reduced bay misuse and not on whether the system is legally compliant or discriminatory? Practical success doesn’t override legal obligations under the Equality Act.
So, they might think their policy is lawful because it aims to solve a genuine problem, but in reality:
• If the policy causes direct discrimination, it’s indefensible.
• If it causes indirect discrimination, they must justify it—and the system as it stands is unlikely to pass that test.
So their confidence (that you think they have) may rest more on habit and lack of legal challenge than on any solid legal footing.