Yes, but what contravention is alleged by the council because there are 2 options:
(a)acts in contravention of a prescribed order; or
(b)fails to comply with an indication given by a scheduled section 36 traffic sign
We know what the sign on its own means, but on what basis was it placed? I ask because I've never seen any council evidence posted in these cases which clarifies this position.
From s36 RTA
2)A traffic sign shall not be treated for the purposes of this section as having been lawfully placed unless either—
(a)the indication given by the sign is an indication of a statutory prohibition, restriction or requirement, or
(b)it is expressly provided by or under any provision of the Traffic Acts that this section shall apply to the sign or to signs of a type of which the sign is one;